Scripture is clear that Jesus did not sin and that He can sympathize with our weaknesses. According to the traditional doctrine, Jesus wasn’t even capable of sinning because He is fully God. But if He wasn’t even capable of sinning, what is the significance of His temptations and sinlessness? What does it mean for Jesus to be able to sympathize with us, as Hebrews 4 states, if He never sinned like us? What is the point of tempting Jesus if He can’t sin in the first place? If one can be tempted, doesn’t that presuppose the ability to sin?
Give this some thought, and let us know what you think. We’ll hear Brett’s response on Thursday.